Eunice Posted Mon 30th of January, 2012 17:37:29 PM
I have two questions..
1) can I use 72190? I thought I read somewhere to use CPT 76499 but cannot remember where..
2) when do I use dx 715.1x vs 715.9x?
AP AND BILATERAL JUDET VIEWS OF THE PELVIS:
CLINICAL DATA: Pain in right side of pelvis anteriorly and posteriorly for approximately six months. No trauma. Pain increases with increasing activity. History of hysterectomy.
FINDINGS: One additional LPO view of the pelvis was obtained. There is moderate bilateral hip osteoarthritis present with superior medial joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophyte formation. This is unchanged from the prior CT scan. T
here is also evidence of chondrocalcinosis bilaterally. There is also chondrocalcinosis in the symphysis pubis with mild osteitis pubis. There are vascular clips again noted in the right medial thigh and groin areas bilaterally without change. This is
from prior surgery. Multiple phleboliths are noted bilaterally without significant change. There is no evidence of a fracture or malalignment. No other abnormality is seen.
Incidentally noted is spina bifida occulta of the sacrum.
MODERATE BILATERAL HIP OSTEOARTHRITIS WITH CHONDROCALCINOSIS INDICATIVE OF CALCIUM PYROPHOSPHATE DIHYDRATE DEPOSITION ARTHROPATHY. NO FRACTURE.
SuperCoder Answered Mon 30th of January, 2012 18:00:06 PM
Yes, there is a context where it was written to use 76499, but you need to check the documentation :[http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/385838-overview]
72190 is correct.