Robin Posted Fri 13th of August, 2010 15:42:23 PM
New to pathology coding.
How do you code a pap smear CPT
88142 & HPV
87621, when given only the clinical info as
6235. I have been adding
v73.81 to the HPV. Not sure if this is correct.
Thanks for any help.
SuperCoder Answered Fri 13th of August, 2010 19:23:58 PM
6235 means 623.5 -- that's the finding -- vaginal discharge (was this a problem ob visit -- you would link that complaint to the EM)
v22.1 is for pregnancy supervision.
usually you use V76.2 with a screening Pap and findings from the lab are in the 795.0x or 795.1 range
V72.31 is for the annual exam and should be linked to that. V73.81 is for the HPV screen.
Jen Godreau, CPC, CPEDC
Content Director, Supercoder.com
Robin Posted Mon 16th of August, 2010 08:26:35 AM
Thank you for responding. I code for the pathology group. The info I receive info from the pathlogist the clinical is written
v22.1 everything is negative on the cytology review. And the only diag. I can use is the
v22.1 I know that I can't use
v22.1 as primary and
623.5 will be denied on the
So if I add the
V76.2 and the
v73.81 along with
v22.1 to CPT
87621would I be correct in doing so.
I also sometimes have problems with medicare not paying the
87621 when I use the
v72.31 andv73.81`. Would you have any info. on how to code PAPs. It so confusing sometimes
Thank you again,
Robin Kublin, CPC