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Jeffrey Posted 4 month(s) ago
This is regarding CPT 95165. I believe CPT defines a dose as “the amount of antigen administered in a single injection from a multiple dose vial”. Medicare defines a dose as 1cc. It is my understanding that we should bill private payers according to the CPT definition of a dose unless that payer specifically says they follow the Medicare definition of a dose. Is this correct or should all payers be billed according to the Medicare definition of a dose (1cc)? Thank you
SuperCoder Posted 4 month(s) ago
Posted by Jeffrey, 4 month(s). There are 2 posts. The latest reply is from SuperCoder.

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