David Posted Mon 23rd of February, 2015 13:21:36 PM
I am fairly new to Urology and was trained that if a patient comes in and has BPH with LUTS we automatically use 600.01. I have research and am not sure I understand the difference between 600.01 and 600.91? Or 600.00 vs. 600.90.
What would need to be documented to make sure we are choosing the correct code? I would appreciate any feedback on this as I am not sure we should always be choosing the 600.01. The doctors never indicate hypertrophy vs hyperplasia...it is always just stated as BPH with/without LUTS.
SuperCoder Answered Wed 25th of February, 2015 02:58:13 AM
BPH stands for both Benign Prostate Hypertrophy and Benign Prostate Hyperplasia. You must query the provider that diagnosis should be more specified that whether it is hypertrophy or hyperplasia, to avoid any future mistakes. Hope this will help.